Brad DeLong recently posted "an off-the-cuff list of ten "constitutional moments" when American judges had changed the law. Fourth on his list is: The post-Civil War empowering of corporations with exorbitant privileges of citizenship and limited liability at the expense of government regulators and creditors." I pointed out that DeLong was wrong on two scores. First, limitied liability was created by statute not judicial action. Second, the post-Civil War cases in which the Supreme Court held that the corporation is a legal person for purposes of certain Constitutional purposes followed from the legislative history of the 14th Amendment.
In a sarcastic post DeLong takes issue with my second argument. Accordingly, I take it he concedes that he was wrong about limited liability, although he seemingly can't quite bring himself to admit it. Hence, I left this comment on his site:
So you concede you're wrong about limited liability?
Deleting this comment will be taken as an implied admission.
The second line admittedly is a little snarky, but as one of the commenters to my first post remarked:
I think elementary fairness requires that you not allow Brad DeLong to post here, since he doesn't allow critical comments on his own website. Just delete his comments.
And if you see him, tell him that his bad behavior is the reason I stopped donating to my alma mater.
Hence, a preemptive strike.
Turning to the merits, when you push through all the sarcasm, what are DeLong's substantive arguments? DeLong complains that I rely on the legislative history of the 14th Amendment. It's an odd jurisprudence that says one should must either rely solely on the plain text or open the floodgates to policy arguments, however, which seems to be the gist of his position.
Next, DeLong relies on a dissent by Justices Black and Douglas. Black and Douglas claimed that "There was no history, logic, or reason given to support" the view that "a corporation is a 'person' within the meaning of the Equal Protection Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment." But Black and Douglas were dissenters. By definition, their views of the relevant "history, logic, or reason" did not prevail at the time. Nor have they prevailed subsequently.
Then DeLong goes back to one of the relevant cases, in which he claims the Supreme Court did not decide the issue.
To evaluate all this, let's remember what the dispute is about. DeLong claims that the post-Civil War "empowering of corporations with exorbitant privileges of citizenship" was a case in which "American judges had changed the law" without a grounding in legislation or the Constitution.
There are two things wrong with that claim. The first is just a semantic quibble, but given the tone of DeLong's response, I'm in a mood to quibble. Contrary to DeLong's claim, the courts never empowered corporations with "privileges of citizenship." The second clause of the 14th Amendment - the so-called Privileges and Immunities - states that: "No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States." But it is settled that the Privileges and Immunities Clause does not protect corporations, because corporations are not deemed citizens for purposes of the 14th Amendment. Western and Southern Life Ins. Co. v. State Bd. of Equalization of California, 451 U.S. 648, 656 (1981). Conversely, however, "It is well established that a corporation is a 'person' within the meaning of the Fourteenth Amendment." Metropolitan Life Ins. Co. v. Ward, 470 U.S. 869, 881 (1985). What DeLong presumably meant to say was that judges had empowered "corporations with exorbitant privileges of" personhood.
Second, and more important, contrary to Justices Black and Douglas, and hence to DeLong, the Supreme Court did not simply invent the corporation's legal personhood by unadorned judicial fiat. The Supreme Court was persuaded by Roscoe Conkling's recounting of the relevant legislative history in Conkling's arguments in San Mateo County v. Southern Pac. R.R., 116 U.S. 138 (1885). Conkling had been a member of the Joint Congressional Committee that drafted the 14th amendment and in Southern Pacific argued to the Justices that it had been the intent of Congress for the word "person" to include "legal" persons (corporations) as well as "natural" persons within the protective scope of the due process and equal protection clauses of the amendment. The Court accepted Conkling's argument.
Conkling's version of Congressional intent is now contested by some scholars, hence my "off the cuff" reference to the "not uncontested" history. But that's irrelevant to the argument DeLong and I are having. If the Court didn't create the corporation's legal personhood by unabashed judicial fiat, but rather based its decision on its understanding of the text and legislative history of the provision, even if that understanding was wrong, I win.
This post generated a LOT of comments, which I've moved from the old site:
AUTHOR: Matt
DATE: 02/22/2007 08:00:51 PM
In general I like Delong. I think his writing on economics is often very interesting
and useful (I mean his blog writings- I've not read his academic work), his
writing on the shabby job done by the media in covering various topics
(especially bad writing in relation to economic topics) is usually right on and
very useful, and some of his other posts are good, too. But, sometimes he's very off, usually
on things that are outside of his area.
His writing on philosophy, for example, is at best that of a smart
amature. The same for his writing
on law. But, what's really
annoying is that it's almost impossible for him to admit that he's wrong on anything,
even when those who are specialist in the field point it out. And while he doesn't delete _all_
criticism he does very often delete comments that are not especially nastly (no
more nasty then he himself is) but are critical of his views. It's a bad and a
bit shameful habit. This seems
pretty clearly to be one of those cases.
-----
COMMENT:
AUTHOR: Brad DeLong
DATE: 02/22/2007 08:39:27 PM
I don't complain that you rely on the legislative history
of the Fourteenth Amendment. I complain that you get the legislative history of
the Fourteenth Amendment wrong. Congressional committees draft, congress passes
and thus proposes, and state legislatures ratify--you can't just look at the
understanding of the drafters, especially if they keep it secret, and
especially especially if they later on misrepresent what that understanding is.
The Supreme Court chose to read the first and third occurrences of
"persons" in the Fourteenth Amendment as referring to human beings,
and the second as referring to human beings plus corporations. It could have
chosen otherwise without breaking a sweat.
I do think you're largely right on limited liability--but
not completely. The problem I have with your position is that I can't help but
think that general incorporation laws with limited liability attached
"impair the obligations of contracts." The Supreme Court chose not to
say "wait a minute" as states created this new organizational form
which impaired the obligations of those who would otherwise have been general
partners to the enterprise's creditors. It could have chosen otherwise without
breaking a sweat.
Now I like both of these choices. I think the equal
protection clause has been used to enforce a healthy level of generality in
governmental taxation and regulation of business--and that we as a country
would be worse off if California taxed railroads on different tax bases
depending on whether their rails crossed a county line or not. I think that the
agency and fraud problems created by the misuse of limited liability are more
than balanced by the continuity, flexibility, and diversification benefits made
possible by our current private use of the corporate form.
But they are choices. There is nothing in the ratification
of the Fourteenth Amendment that tells the Supreme Court that it should rule
that corporations are entitled to the equal protection of the laws. There is
nothing in Article I Section 10 that tells the Supreme Court to treat state
general incorporation laws with limited liability any differently than Marshall
treated New York's bankruptcy law.
-----
COMMENT:
AUTHOR: Internet Ronin
DATE: 02/23/2007 06:55:17 AM
The snark was well-deserved. DeLong's reputation for
rewriting history on his website is widespread. He definitely ranks in the top
tier of those who can dish it but can't take it. His pattern of behavior on his
blog reveals just how narrow his mind has become. Although one can always hope
that DeLong would benefit from a few lessons in common courtesy, it is unlikely
to happen as he is far too busy being self-reverential. A small man with a
shriveling mind and a good example to others of how not behave.
-----
AUTHOR: Bwad deWong
DATE: 02/24/2007 02:50:30 PM
Waaaah! Waaaaah! Waaaah!
Pwofessow Bainbwidge is pickin' on me!
Bwad
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COMMENT:
AUTHOR: Ric Locke
DATE: 02/24/2007 05:08:01 PM
Codswollop, Brad.
Legal incorporation does not "impair the obligations
of contracts." It simply creates a new entity to engage in contracts. The
fact that some people are too ignorant or too careless to take note of that
simply brings up "ignorance of the Law is no excuse."
Personhood and limited liability have been features of
the corporate form -- indeed, the definition of the corporate form -- since the
Companies of Friends chartered by the British Crown. To suggest that the
framers of the Amendment were unaware of several centuries of precedent is to
disparage them well beyond any rational assessment.
Regards,
Ric
-----
-----
COMMENT:
AUTHOR: Robert Schwartz
DATE: 02/24/2007 08:04:23 PM
"I can't help but think that general incorporation
laws with limited liability attached 'impair the obligations of
contracts.'"
Spoken like somebody who does not understand the law at
all. First of all allowing general incorporation does not impair the obligation
of a any contract.
First, it is not necessarily the case that a corporation
will be organized to carry on an existing enterprise. A person who enters into
a contract with a corporation, whatever its history, has a contract with that
corporation and not any of its shareholders, officers nor directors. He gets
what he bargained for not more nor less. Nothing is impaired.
Even if an enterprise were carried on by a non-corporate
entity, and a corporation were to acquire its assets later, the acquisition
does not in any way discharge the obligations of the persons who had been
obligated before the acquisition. This fact can create some ticklish issues in
acquiring businesses carried on by a non-corporate entity. But once again there
is no impairment, none at all.
"The Supreme Court chose not to say "wait a
minute" as states created this new organizational form which impaired the
obligations of those who would otherwise have been general partners to the
enterprise's creditors."
The use of the corporate form in business enterprise was
not an innovation of the 19th century. It had begun in the Mother country with
the incorporation of the Bank of England in 1600 followed by such ventures as
the East India Company (1602), the Virginia Company and the Plymouth Company
(both 1607). So the corporate form was used for commercial enterprises in North
America from the first English settlements.
The 19th century innovation was allowing private persons
to create a corporation without requiring a special act of a legislature. That
innovation helped channel the capital (much of it from Europe) necessary to
build the United States. But, general incorporation did not change the law of
contracts or of corporations.
Nor can it be said that a corporate shareholder is
general partner with limited liability. Corporations and partnerships may both
be business associations, just as pigs and birds may both be warm blooded
vertebrates, but a corporation is not a subspecies of partnerships anymore than
a pig is a subspecies of bird. The rights and obligations of corporate
shareholders differ dramatically from those of partners. A partner has
unlimited liability, but he has far reaching rights to participate in the
management of the enterprise. The obligations of a shareholder are limited, and
his rights are limited too.
To claim that shareholders (or any other corporate
constituency) should be held liable as partners is to completely ignore the
difference in their respective rights. No one who really understands the
underlying laws, contracts and arrangements would suggest such a thing.
Furthermore, there is no alternative reality where
investors with shareholders rights are content to be taxed with unlimited
liability. If the corporate form or something much like it were not available,
investors would put their money into Treasuries not productive enterprises.
I must also observe that the rest of DeLong's list is not
much better. I won't put any effort into trying to parse the list as it is kind
of incoherent. I will however say that it demonstrates a basic failure to
understand the law and the courts.
PB COMMENTS: Well said. I agree.
-----
COMMENT:
AUTHOR: Jay Currie
DATE: 02/24/2007 10:58:17 PM
I have often been surprised at how difficult it seems to
be for economists to grasp the reality of basic company law as opposed to
lawyers who are usually able to get the fundamentals of Econ 101. When I took
Law and Economics jointly with some economics grad students they seemed to have
real trouble accepting the notion that legal rights and obligations were
created, well, legally.
-----
COMMENT:
AUTHOR: Stuart Buck
DATE: 02/25/2007 08:21:42 AM
I left this comment at DeLong's site, but given past
experience, I'm well aware of his pattern of deleting perfectly civil comments
with which he disagrees. <a
href="http://stuartbuck.blogspot.com/2005/08/roberts.html" rel="nofollow">http://stuartbuck.blogspot.com/2005/08/roberts.html</a> Thus:
QUOTE FROM
DELONG: I do think you're largely right on limited liability--but not
completely. The problem I have with your position is that I can't help but
think that general incorporation laws with limited liability attached
"impair the obligations of contracts." ENDQUOTE
Another comment that seems to reflect an elementary
misunderstanding of constitutional law.
The Contracts Clause only applies (if at all) to "pre-existing
contracts". <a
href="http://caselaw.lp.findlaw.com/cgi-bin/getcase.pl?court=US&vol=503&invol=181"
rel="nofollow">http://caselaw.lp.findlaw.com/cgi-bin/getcase.pl?court=US&vol=503&invol=181</a> I.e., A has a contract with B, and the
state passes a law allowing A to escape liability on that pre-existing
contract. (See also McCracken v.
Hayward, which noted that the "obligation of a contract"
"depends on the laws in existence when it is made," and that the
Contracts Clause question is whether " any subsequent law affect[s] to
diminish the duty, or to impair the right." <a
href="http://caselaw.lp.findlaw.com/scripts/getcase.pl?navby=search&court=US&case=/us/43/608.html"
rel="nofollow">http://caselaw.lp.findlaw.com/scripts/getcase.pl?navby=search&court=US&case=/us/43/608.html</a>
)
The Contracts Clause would never have been implicated, to
my knowledge, merely because a state law allowed people to incorporate and form
new contracts that had limited liability in some respect.
-----
COMMENT:
AUTHOR: Stuart Buck
DATE: 02/25/2007 08:43:25 AM
Another post, just in case DeLong deletes it:
And of course, I forgot to mention one of the most famous
cases in the history of constitutional law: Ogden v. Saunders, which held that
the Contracts Clause applies only "retrospectively."
<a
href="http://caselaw.lp.findlaw.com/scripts/getcase.pl?court=US&vol=25&invol=213"
rel="nofollow">http://caselaw.lp.findlaw.com/scripts/getcase.pl?court=US&vol=25&invol=213</a>
"It is thus most apparent, that, which ever way we
turn, whether to laws affecting the validity, construction, or discharges of
contracts, or the evidence or remedy to be employed in enforcing them, we are
met by this overruling and admitted distinction, between those which operate
retrospectively, and those which operate prospectively. In all of them, the law
is pronounced to be void in the first class of cases, and not so in the
second."
As the Court explained, any other holding would basically
mean that states were not allowed to regulate contracts at all. That is, if the Contracts Clause
applied insofar as a state law affected *future* contracts:
"it is very apparent, that the sphere of State
legislation upon subjects connected with the contracts of individuals, would be
abridged beyond what it can for a moment be believed the sovereign States of
this Union would have consented to; for it will be found, upon examination,
that there are few laws which concern the general police of a state, or the
government of its citizens, in their intercourse with each other, or with
strangers, which may not in some way or other affect the contracts which they
have entered into, or may thereafter form. For what the laws of evidence, or
which concern remedies-frauds and perjuries-laws of registration, and those
which affect landlord and tenant, sales at auction, acts of limitation, and
those which limit the fees of professional men, and the charges of tavern
keepers, and a multitude of others which crowed the codes of every State, but
laws which may affect the validity, construction, or duration, or discharge of
contracts?"